I'd just say 'no', but then say... it varies as per the level of analysis. if you drive, as Bataille and Baudrillard and others do, the location of exchange into the system of relations of signification, then the mode of production, or the hegemonic strategy of capitalism, or whatever you want to ascribe as ideological function inhabits that exchange, so if you think that there is a unified hegemony or a singular mode of production, and that is commercial, then yes All communication is commercial by relation to the series of definitions that you could use. So the level of analysis above is the ontological level, existence as a sign requires exchange, and exchange is structured by 'ideology'. If you move out to systems of knowledge, you can make the same argument, but you can rely on different axioms. I'm not really comfortable trying to locate this as an quantitive question though... i see it more as an interpretative and empirical question framed by your axioms.